Report, edit, etc...Posted by Doodle77(MM) on 2006-03-11 at 12:04:30
yes, it soounds like they say that in some russian song.
I was crazy yesterday, forgive me.
I was crazy yesterday, forgive me.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by Merrell on 2006-03-11 at 13:10:27
QUOTE(Doodle77(MM) @ Mar 10 2006, 05:46 PM)
Simplest way to think of it for me
Always remember, Feliz es tu madre!
[right][snapback]442843[/snapback][/right]
CODE
y = x^2
__x____y______literal____________
-3 | .125 | 2/2/2/2/2
-2 | .25 | 2/2/2/2
-1 | .5 | 2/2/2
0 | 1 | 2/2
1 | 2 | 2
2 | 4 | 2x2
3 | 8 | 2x2x2
4 | 16 | 2x2x2x2
--------------------------
__x____y______literal____________
-3 | .125 | 2/2/2/2/2
-2 | .25 | 2/2/2/2
-1 | .5 | 2/2/2
0 | 1 | 2/2
1 | 2 | 2
2 | 4 | 2x2
3 | 8 | 2x2x2
4 | 16 | 2x2x2x2
--------------------------
Always remember, Feliz es tu madre!
[right][snapback]442843[/snapback][/right]
Yes, but still, my post explains it.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by Merrell on 2006-03-11 at 14:31:48
Wow.. are you kidding me? The whole topic has been on topic. You just ruined it with your pointless post.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by HolySin on 2006-03-11 at 14:37:52
Well, Syphon, Merrell, and I pretty much said the same thing, there really isn't much else to say.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by MisterKwiz on 2006-03-12 at 01:06:15
It really would of been alot easier if you people just said the following,
a^n / a^n = a^n - n
(a to the nth power divided by a to the nth power is equal to a to the nth power minus the nth power)
And n - n = 0, then a^0
And since a^n / a^n = 1, then a^0 = 1.
(a to the nth power divided by a to the nth power is equal to 1)
a^n / a^n = a^n - n
(a to the nth power divided by a to the nth power is equal to a to the nth power minus the nth power)
And n - n = 0, then a^0
And since a^n / a^n = 1, then a^0 = 1.
(a to the nth power divided by a to the nth power is equal to 1)
Report, edit, etc...Posted by HolySin on 2006-03-12 at 16:43:27
Wow, thank you for repeating what we said. What would we do without you.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by Ninebreaker on 2006-03-12 at 22:16:58
If you can divide powers then its simple.
x/x = (x^1)-(x^1) = x^0
Substitute x for 2
2/2 = 2 divided by 2 = 1.
x/x = (x^1)-(x^1) = x^0
Substitute x for 2
2/2 = 2 divided by 2 = 1.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by HolySin on 2006-03-12 at 22:40:41
We get the point. Can this topic be locked, please?
Report, edit, etc...Posted by rusell1993 on 2006-03-18 at 15:54:40
QUOTE(Soulshifter @ Mar 8 2006, 11:30 PM)
In math class we recently learned that any number to the 0th power is one.One, what the hell?
By placing a power over a number, you are abbreviating something like 2x2x2 to 2(3)...
We work our way down...
2x2 = 2(2)
2 = 2(1)
= 1? How do you get 1?
On the left side of the bottom equasion is nothing, and 0 is a representation for nothing. Whether it be a lack of a digit or any number at all, it means nothing. Since there is nothing on the left side, we can place a 0 there.
0=1
No, it doesn't work. I simply don't see why something(0) should equal 1.
Knowing there are a few higher level math geeks than myself here, could I get a hand? I must know how and why anthing(0) = 1!
ADDITION:
Since I have no cluse how to do miniature power numbers, any number in ()'s is a power....
[right][snapback]441879[/snapback][/right]
there is no proper mathematical reason why it makes 1 all the time, except that it is the only way to make it make sense all the time
eg: y[0]*y[5] = y[0+5] = 1*y[5] = y[5].
Report, edit, etc...Posted by HolySin on 2006-03-18 at 16:05:25
Can you not read the posts above? We already proved it mathematically.
Report, edit, etc...Posted by BeeR_KeG on 2006-03-18 at 16:18:03
There is also no need for you to say the same thing over and over.
X[sup]0[/sup] can be proved in many different ways, it doesn't have to be yours.
X[sup]0[/sup] can be proved in many different ways, it doesn't have to be yours.